Frederick Herzberg

Two-factor theory (also known as Herzberg's motivation-hygiene theory) was developed by Frederick Herzberg, a psychologist who found that job satisfaction and job dissatisfaction acted independently of each other. Two Factor Theory states that there are certain factors in the workplace that cause job satisfaction, while a separate set of factors cause dissatisfaction

Herzberg argued that job enrichment is required for intrinsic motivation, and that it is a continuous management process. According to Herzberg:

  • The job should have sufficient challenge to utilize the full ability of the employee.
  • Employees who demonstrate increasing levels of ability should be given increasing levels of responsibility.
  • If a job cannot be designed to use an employee's full abilities, then the firm should consider automating the task or replacing the employee with one who has a lower level of skill. If a person cannot be fully utilized, then there will be a motivation problem.

Public Administration : Solved Paper

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008
Public Administration : Solved Paper
(Held on 7-1-2009)


1. Which of the following theories focuses on informal organization and participative management ?
(A) Human Relations Theory
(B) Scientific Management Theory
(C) Behavioural Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Ans : (A)

2. “Until administrative description reaches a higher level of sophistication, there is little reason to hope that rapid progress will be made towards the identification and verification of valid administrative principles.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Leonard White
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Robert Dahl
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following attempts to construct a theory of public organization in tune with consumer interests and individual preferences ?
(A) Development Administration Approach
(B) Public Choice Approach
(C) Co-optation Concept
(D) Behavioural Approach
Ans : (B)

4. Who theorized that ‘Every person has certain basic assumptions about other people’s attitude toward work and organization.’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Frederick Herzberg
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Douglas McGregor
Ans : (D)

5. Which of the following has been termed as the biological parent of Public Administration ?
(A) Sociology
(B) Political Science
(C) Business Administration
(D) Psychology
Ans : (B)


6. The central theme of Comparative Public Administration is—
(A) Administrative structure
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Citizen-Administration Relations
(D) Leadership
Ans : (B)

7. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Theme)
(a) Job Enrichment
(b) Mechanical Study of the Process
(c) Human Dimensions
(d) Social Equity Attitude
List-II (Thinker)
1. D. Waldo
2. W. F. Willoughby
3. F. Herzberg
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (A)

8. The most preferred perspective to distinguish public and private in administration is—
(A) Agency
(B) Interest
(C) Access
(D) Commitment
Ans : (B)

9. “Lack of courage to delegate properly and of knowledge how to do it is one of the most general causes of failure in organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Lyndall Urwick
(C) Paul H. Appleby
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans : (A)

10. Who was the Chairman of the Comparative Administration Group 1963 ?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) Fred Riggs
(D) Franc Marini
Ans : (C)

11. Politicisation of bureaucracy means—
(A) Responding to the will of the government of every complexion
(B) Sacrificing professional norms for party consideration
(C) Supporting party ideology
(D) Attending party assemblies
Ans : (B)

12. “In the past the man was first. In the future the system will be the first.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Marshall Dimock
(D) Leonard White
Ans : (B)

13. Rensis Likert’s System I is characterised by—
(A) Supportive Leadership
(B) Low Motivation
(C) Self Regulation
(D) Openness
Ans : (B)

14. The basic premise of New Public Management is—
(A) Governments as the primary agent of all social action
(B) Large governmental bureaucracies
(C) More flexible and open governments
(D) Paternal governments
Ans : (C)

15. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Direct Authority
(b) Delegated Authority
(c) Functional Authority
(d) Personal Authority
List-II
1. Seniority
2. Unbroken line between Issuer and Acceptor
3. An Intermediate Agency between Issuer and Acceptor
4. Intrinsic by special knowledge
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (C)

16. According to Mary Parker Follett, the principles of effective coordination are—
(a) Intellectual Ability
(b) Continuity
(c) Reciprocity
(d) Mutual Consultation
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

17. Dwight Waldo in his book ‘The Administrative State’ has attacked—
(a) Notion of Unchanging Principles of Administration
(b) Human Emotions in Organization
(c) Narrowness of Values of Economy and Efficiency
(d) Inconsistencies in Methodology used in determining the principles
Codes :
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)

18. Human Relations Theory believed that the people are—
(A) Economic Men
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Heterogeneous
(D) Atomistic
Ans : (C)

19. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Substantive Coordination
(b) Internal Coordination
(c) Horizontal Coordination
(d) Procedural Coordination
List-II
1. Between Units in the same level
2. Between different units within the organisation
3. Generalised description of the behaviour and relationship of the members of the organization
4. Content of the organization’s activities
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)

20. The linking process for interaction under systems approach does not include—
(A) Communication
(B) Delegation
(C) Balance
(D) Decision Making
Ans : (B)

21. “Work division is the foundation of organization, indeed, the reason for organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) Mary Parker Follett
Ans : (C)

22. The semantic barrier to communication is not—
(A) Environment
(B) Distracting Noise
(C) Distance
(D) Poor Listening Habits
Ans : (C)

23. The Bills which can be introduced but cannot be considered without the prior recommendation of the President is—
(A) Money Bills under Article 110
(B) Financial Bills not consisting solely of matters specified in Article 110
(C) Ordinary Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
(D) Bills affecting taxes in which States are interested
Ans : (C)

24. New Public Administration shares this feature with Development Administration—
(A) Effective coordination
(B) Change orientation
(C) Temporal Dimension
(D) Ecological Perspective
Ans : (B)

25. “As long as the study of Public Administration is not comparative, claims for a science of Public Administration is rather hollow.” Who said it ?
(A) Fred Riggs
(B) Max Weber
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Ferrel Heady
Ans : (C)

26. In Britain the ‘Priestly formula’ relates to—
(A) Recruitment
(B) Promotion
(C) Pay
(D) Disciplinary Action
Ans : (B)

27. Whitley Council in UK is not a forum for—
(A) Discussion and Negotiation
(B) Ventilation of Grievances
(C) Settlement of Disputes on Service Conditions
(D) Settlement of Individual cases relating to Promotion & Disciplinary Action
Ans : (D)

28. “Neutral bureaucracy can be found only in a secular political culture.” Who said it ?
(A) M. E. Dimock
(B) Glenn Stahl
(C) G. A. Almond
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (C)

29. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Monte Carlo
(b) Gambler
(c) Synetics
(d) Contract
List-II (Meaning)
1. Generation of Alternative Solutions
2. Narrow Form of Simulation
3. Formal Basis of Authority
4. To take Greater Risk
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (C)

30. The most effective means of citizens’ control over administration is—
(A) Elections
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

31. The U.S. President’s principal staff agency in fiscal, legislative and administrative management is—
(A) Bureau of the Budget
(B) The Office of Management and Budget
(C) Department of the Treasury
(D) White House Office
Ans : (B)

32. Which of the following is not a feature of U.S. personnel system ?
(A) Competitive Service
(B) Lateral Entry
(C) Post-entry Training
(D) Rule of Three
Ans : (B)

33. Grants from Centre to the States are regulated by the following Articles of the Constitution—
(A) 268, 269, 270, 272
(B) 270, 271, 274
(C) 273, 275, 282
(D) 275, 282, 287
Ans : (A)

34. The expectancy theory of motivation depends upon the employee’s perception of the relationship between—
(A) Need, Performance and Achievement
(B) Effort, Performance and Reward
(C) Desire, Performance and Response
(D) Preference, Performance and Action
Ans : (B)

35. Who referred the interaction between politicians and administrators as ‘administrative politics’ ?
(A) Michael Murray
(B) Michael Crozier
(C) David Rosenblom
(D) Peter Self
Ans : (D)

36. The techniques applied in performance appraisal in U.S.A. are—
(a) Rating Scale
(b) Critical Incidents
(c) Forced choice
(d) Forced Distribution
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)

37. The political rights granted to the Civil Servants in France are—
(a) Right to become member of a political party
(b) Right to participate in political activities
(c) Right to criticise government’s policies
(d) Right to contest elections to any representative office
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)

38. The functions performed by the then Secretary to the Governor-General before Independence are now performed by—
(A) Chief Secretary
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (C)

39. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Economic Man
(b) Decision Tree
(c) Link Pin Concept
(d) Simulation
List-II
1. Trial and Error Approach to Complex Problems
2. Subordinate becomes a Member of the Superior’s Decision Unit
3. Optimum Decision
4. Graphic Method to see Alternative Solutions
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (A)

40. In USA the authority to regulate the formation and dissolution of Federal Departments is vested in—
(A) President
(B) Congress
(C) Constitution
(D) President in consultation with the Secretary of State
Ans : (B)

41. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Zone of Acceptance
(b) Zone of Indifference
(c) Span of Attention
(d) Scalar chain
List-II
1. Graicunas
2. Henri Fayol
3. Herbert Simon
4. Chester Barnard
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following, according to Bruce Stone, is not a ‘Bottom-Up’ concept of accountability ?
(A) Parliamentary control
(B) Judicial and Quasi-Judicial Review
(C) Constituency Relationship
(D) Market
Ans : (B)

43. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Civil Service Commission
(b) Recruitment by Promotion
(c) Open Competition
(d) Centralised Recruitment
List-II
1. 1917
2. 1926
3. 1919
4. 1833
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)

44. The concept of Citizens’ Charter as a means to greater accountability and openness was first introduced in 1991 in—
(A) USA
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (B)

45. Which of the following is not an informal training type ?
(A) Training by Communication
(B) Conference Method
(C) Departmental Training
(D) Syndicate Method
Ans : (D)

46. A grant for meeting an unexpected demand is called—
(A) Supplementary Grant
(B) Votes on Account
(C) Votes on Credit
(D) Exceptional Grant
Ans : (D)

47. “Budget is a document which is unstitched and reassembled by the Appropriation Committees of both the Houses.” This statement of Aaron Wildrasky applies to the budget of—
(A) United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)

48. The best check on bureaucratic power, according to Weber, lies with—
(A) Powerful Private Groups
(B) Strong Bureaucratic leadership
(C) Strong Parliament
(D) Superior Technical Knowledge of the Chief Executive
Ans : (D)

49. ‘If a society is not at all differentiated, if there are no specialists, if everyone can do everything.’ Riggs calls it a—
(A) Society
(B) Prismatic Society
(C) Diffracted Society
(D) Transitional Society
Ans : (B)

50. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(A) Compromiser—poor decision maker
(B) Executive—good motivator
(C) Bureaucrat—control of situation by rules
(D) Developer—interest in harmony, avoids conflicts
Ans : (B)

51. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Books)
(a) The New Science of Management decision
(b) Organization and Innovation
(c) The Achieving Society
(d) Eupsychian Management
List-II (Author)
1. David McClelland
2. Abraham Maslow
3. Chris Argyris
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)

52. ‘The bureaucracy is a circle, which no one can escape, its hierarchy is a hierarchy of knowledge.’ Who said it ?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Blau and Scott
(D) T. Parsons
Ans : (B)

53. Which of the following is an area of Planning Commission ?
(A) Review of the Union and State Finances
(B) Maintaining Macro-economic Stability
(C) Public and Foreign Loans
(D) Suggesting Ways and Means to Restructure Public Finance
Ans : (A)

54. The advantages of a departmental undertaking are—
(a) Optimum Utilisation of Financial Resources
(b) Operational Flexibility
(c) High Degree of Accountability
(d) Autonomy in working
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)

55. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Endo-prismatic
(b) Exo-prismatic
(c) Ortho prismatic
(d) Diffracted
List-II
1. Semi differentiated and malintegrated
2. Congruence of aspiration and reality
3. Impetus from outside
4. Internally generated movement towards diffraction
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

56. The authority which can make rules for the transaction of the business of the Government of India is—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (A)

57. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Knowledge Worker
(b) Domination by Organization personality
(c) Action-centred Leadership Theory
(d) Organization as Bureaucracy
List-II (Thinkers)
1. John Adair
2. Max Weber
3. Chester Barnard
4. Peter Drucker
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)

58. ‘No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law.’ This has been provided in—
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 112
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 114
Ans : (D)

59. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) All India Services
(b) Classification of Civil Services
(c) Regulation of Recruitment and Conditions of Service
(d) General Policies Regarding all Central Services
List-II
1. Parliamentary Act
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
3. Article 312
4. Civil Service Rules 1930
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (B)

60. “Increasing efficiency must begin with those higher ups. This is the essence of scientific management.” Who said it ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Louis Brandis
(C) Frederick Taylor
(D) Harrington Emerson
Ans : (D)

61. The conditions necessary to ensure that neutrality does not lead to a state of inertia and status-quo maintenance are—
(a) cultural or class congruence between Ruling group and Administrative elite
(b) absence of fundamental disagreement over social core values
(c) active participation in political process
(d) a shared belief system’s presence
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans : (D)

62. Rigg’s concept of development considers penetration as a factor of integration. Consider the following—
(a) The ability of the government to make and carry out decisions.
(b) People’s receptivity to law
(c) People’s will to participate
(d) People’s ability to participate
Which of the above is correct regarding penetration ?
Codes :
(A) (a)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)

63. Who recommended that the National Development Council should be given a constitutional status under Article 263 and renamed as National Economic and Development Council ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) P. J. Rajamannar Committee
(D) Chief Secretary’s Conference
Ans : (B)

64. What falls within the purview of consultation of Union Public Service Commission ?
(a) Direct Appointment
(b) Promotion and Transfer
(c) Pay and Service Conditions
(d) Classification and Training
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)

65. In a State the Chief Secretary acts as—
(a) Principal Adviser to the Governor
(b) Coordinating link in inter-State Disputes
(c) Secretary to the Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of all Planning and Development Coordination Committees
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)

66. Which of the following provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor of two or more States ?
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 155
(C) 7th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 11th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)

67. Audit of State Government Accounts is a—
(A) State Subject
(B) Union Subject
(C) Subject on Concurrent List
(D) Subject of Fiscal Policy
Ans : (B)

68. The body that examines the expenditure of the Departments and questions the propriety of these expenditures is—
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimate Committee
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Committee on Assurances
Ans : (C)

69. Reappropriation is permissible only—
(A) Between voted and charged items of expenditure
(B) Between different grants voted by the Lok Sabha
(C) Within the same grant only
(D) To meet any expenditure not already sanctioned by the Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

70. It is a comprehensive account of the receipts and expenditure of the Government under various heads and sub-heads of the Budget—
(A) The Appropriation Account
(B) The Finance Account
(C) Economic Classification of the Budget
(D) Functional Classification of the Budget
Ans : (B)

71. Which of the following statements are true about Lokayukta in Rajasthan ?
(a) He is appointed by the Governor and is responsible to the legislature.
(b) His jurisdiction spans over Ministers, Members of State Legislature and higher Civil Servants.
(c) He considers the cases of corruption and mal administration.
(d) His job is confined to investigate allegations and not grievances.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans : (D)

72. Among the critical dimensions of the leadership situation the most important dimension, according to Fiedler, is—
(A) Position Power
(B) Task Structure
(C) Leader-Member Relations
(D) Least Preferred Co-worker
Ans : (D)

73. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Citizen’s Charter
(b) Right to Information
(c) Judicial Control
(d) Legislative Control
List-II
1. Total Quality Approach
2. Accountability for Decision
3. Transparency
4. Guarantee against Arbitrariness
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (D)

74. Which one of the following is not a function of the Directorate ?
(A) Formulation of the Budget of the Department
(B) Inspection of the execution of work by Field Officers
(C) Rendering technical advice to the Minister/Secretary
(D) Coordination of interdepartmental functions
Ans : (A)

75. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Injunction—Strong arm of equity
(B) Quo Warranto—Prevents illegal assumption of Public Office
(C) Prohibition—Issued against administrative authorities
(D) Habeas Corpus—The bulwark of individual liberty.
Ans : (C)

76. The recommendation to the Union Government for the grant of financial assistance to the States is made by—
(a) The President
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) The Finance Commission
(d) The Planning Commission
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

77. “It transforms the representative democracy into participatory democracy.” This statement has a reference to—
(A) Parliamentary System of the Government
(B) Article 40 of the Constitution
(C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(D) 74th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)

78. Which of the following is not a corporation form ?
(A) Unit Trust of India
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) Food Corporation of India
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (B)

79. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Development Council ?
(a) It symbolises a federal approach to planning.
(b) It was set up by a proposal of the Cabinet Secretariat in August 1952.
(c) It was reconstituted in 1968 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission.
(d) The initiative to convene its meeting lies with the Planning Commission.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

80. For which form of Public Enterprise it is said that “It is a child of the State which grows into maturity as soon as it is born” ?
(A) Departmental Form
(B) Company Form
(C) Corporation Form
(D) Commission Form
Ans : (C)

81. Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment include—
(A) Three Tier Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Reservation for Backward Classes
(C) Reservation for Women up to 1/3 seats
(D) Five Year term for PRIs
Ans : (B)

82. Which of the following is the Central Personnel Agency in India ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Department of Personnel and Training
(D) Staff Selection Board
Ans : (C)

83. An urban body in the modern sense was first established in the year—
(A) 1660
(B) 1687
(C) 1951
(D) 1992
Ans : (B)

84. It is not created by an act of State or Union Legislature—
(A) Municipal Corporation
(B) Notified Area Committee
(C) Town Area Committee
(D) Cantonment Board
Ans : (B)

85. The Central Council of Local Government—
(a) is an advisory body.
(b) is constituted under Article 263
(c) Consists of Union Minister for Urban Development and State Ministers for Local Self Government
(d) Controls the Central financial assistance to local bodies
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)

86. The Powers, Authority and Responsibilities of Panchayats in India are mentioned in the Article—
(A) 243 B
(B) 243 D
(C) 243 G
(D) 243 W
Ans : (C)

87. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Miniature District
(b) King-pin of Revenue Administration
(c) Unit for Revenue and Criminal Administration
(d) First Line Supervisor in the chain of Revenue Administration
List-II
1. Sub Division
2. Kanungo
3. Tehsil
4. Patwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)

88. Gram Sabha has been called “Embodiment of Direct Democracy” by—
(A) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) G. V. K. Rao Committee
(D) L. M. Singhvi Committee
Ans : (D)

89. The transitional area, smaller urban area, larger urban area are differentiated on the basis of—
(a) population and its density
(b) level of per capita income
(c) revenue generated for local administration
(d) percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)

90. With the advent of development administration, the Collector has emerged as—
(A) Symbol of State Power
(B) Head of General Administration
(C) Coordinator of Development Programmes
(D) Executive Head of Development Programmes
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 91–100) The following consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

91. Assertion (A) : The study of Public Administration lacks cross cultural concepts and principles for being able to be recognised as science.
Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot transcend the national frontiers and national experiences.
Ans : (C)

92. Assertion (A) : The Contingency approach and the Transactional approach, both are mutually complementary and quite interrelated.
Reason (R) : Unlike the Contingency models, which concentrate only on the problems confronting the leader in dealing with a small group, Transactional approaches also analyse the leader’s subordinates and the problems confronting them.
Ans : (B)

93. Assertion (A) : Like any social science, Public Administration has its own corpus of methodologies.
Reason (R) : Public Administrationists are aware that the central methodologies of the ‘mother discipline’ usually are irrelevant of practising Public Administration.
Ans : (A)

94. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations Theory focuses on management as a web of interpersonal relations.
Reason (R) : Richard Franke and James Kaul concluded that the human relations were not the reason behind worker’s efficiency.
Ans : (C)

95. Assertion (A) : The Government has no power to regulate, through an appropriate legislation, the recruitment to civil services.
Reason (R) : The Constitution provides for the establishment of an impartial and independent Union Public Service Commission for recruiting civil servants in India.
Ans : (D)

96. Assertion (A) : In the open model, what is good for the individual is also good for the society.
Reason (R) : Open model of organization, like the closed model, is an ideal type.
Ans : (B)

97. Assertion (A) : Individuals and organizations over invest in information.
Reason (R) : Information intensive decisions have a greater organizational acceptance and smoother implementation.
Ans : (A)

98. Assertion (A) : The first principle of democratic governance is that the rulers should be accountable to the people.
Reason (R) : Transparency and accountability in governance depend on citizens easy access to reliable information and data.
Ans : (B)

99. Assertion (A) : The ‘disadvantaged’ states perceive that they have been punished for the better performance, whereas the ‘laggard’ states continue to be rewarded.
Reason (R) : The Finance Commission has the constitutional responsibility to provide succour to the underdeveloped States.
Ans : (B)

100. Assertion (A) : The bureaucracy and the political leadership can achieve the goals by working closely and harmoniously.
Reason (R) : If political leadership represents the input functions of a political system, the output function is performed by the administration.
Ans : (A)

National emergency

National emergency under article 352

National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in

1962 (Indo-China war),

1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and

1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi to maintain law and order in the country).

The President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month. Such an emergency can be imposed for six months. It can be extended by six months by repeated parliamentary approval.

In such an emergency, Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended. The six freedoms under Right to Freedom are automatically suspended. However, the Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended. It modifies the federal system of government to a unitary one.

The Parliament can make laws on the 66 subjects of the State List (which contains subjects on which the state governments can make laws).

Also, all money bills are referred to the Parliament for its approval.

The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by a period of one year but not more than six months from the date when the emergency has ceased to exist.

First Amendment

The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 was the first amendment of the Constitution of India. It made several changes to the Fundamental Rights provisions; it provided against abuse of freedom of speech and expression, validation of zamindari abolition laws, and clarified that the right to equality does not bar the enactment of laws which provide "special consideration" for weaker sections of society. The bill was moved by then Prime Minister of India Jawaharlal Nehru on 10th May, 1951 and enacted by Parliament on 18 June 1951.

Decentralisation

The Definition of Decentralisation

Because there are so many types and sub-types of decentralisation, it is difficult to give an exact definition of its meaning. The various definitions of types and sub types of decentralisation can be confusing as Diane Conyers points out. She argues that it is more helpful to look at each system of decentralisation in its own context. Her general definition states that decentralisation involves:

the transfer of power and / or authority to plan, make decisions and /or manage public functions from a higher level of government to a lower one.” (Diane Conyers, 1990)

Decentralisation is generally regarded as being democratic and referred to as democratic decentralisation where the lower-level authorities are a) largely or wholly independent of the central government, and b) democratically elected. (James Manor, 1997)

Broadly any definition of decentralisation would indicate that it involves a transfer of authority to perform some service to the public from central government to some other individual or agency which is closer to the public to be served. The basis for such transfers is often territorial and may be driven by the desire to place authority at a lower level in the territorial hierarchy and thus geographically closer to service providers and clients. Whilst this is more common, transfers may also be made functionally whereby authority is transferred to an authority or an agency that is functionally specialised.


Peoples Campaign for Decentralised Planning in Kerala

Among the various provisions for strengthening local governance (Panchayati Raj institutions) the 73rd Amendment in India called upon the Pachayti Raj Institutions to conduct local programmes of planning for social and economic justice. Local level planning has been most thoroughly undertaken in the state of Kerala. In 1994 the state enacted the Kerala Panchayti Raj Act and its State Planning Board initiated the Peoples Planning Campaign in an attempt to try and strengthen village level governance and empower local panchayats to draw up plans based on a participatory village-based planning process. Planning was supported through the mobilisation and the involvement of neighbourhood groups; training camps for thousands of resource persons from state, district and local levels, as well as for retired experts. 40% of the state budget was set aside for the support of projects planned and implemented locally.

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The Advantages of Decentralisation

Ø redistribute resources in favour of the poor

Ø deliver services more effectively and responsively

Ø enhance accountability,

Ø enhance the participation of local people in the decision making process

Ø deepen democracy


The Pitfalls of Decentralisation

It is also necessary to keep in mind the possible pitfalls of decentralisation. Not all decentralisation schemes seek to give power to the people. In some cases, decentralisation has been seen to reinforce the local power structure and cause local elites to capture more political power. It should thus be remembered that, by its very nature, decentralisation is inevitably a political process. This is because it concerns the redistribution of power and resources, and thus alters the balance of power in society.

Those involved in decentralisation initiatives world-wide are increasingly pointing out that for decentralisation to be meaningful, the political will and commitment of central government to the process is absolutely critical. Contrary to popular assumptions, decentralisation actually implies more from central government, its ministries and institutions, rather than less. The creation of a conducive environment in which development can take place through the decentralisation process is a task which faces any government involved in decentralising its power

In his recent work, James Manor has shown that decentralisation has often come as a result of either pressure from donors or as a ‘top-down’ initiative of governments rather than pressure ‘from below’. It is important to look at the motives that may lie behind the decision to decentralise. Such motives may include attempts by governments to:

· Further political power at local level

· Capture local support

· Channel money or patronage to particular sections of society

· Build political alliances

· Smooth out regional differences

· Dump responsibilities and costs for the provision of services


Matrix Structure

Matrix Structure
A structure that creates dual lines of authority and combines functional and product departmentalization

Key Elements:
+++++Gains the advantages of functional and product departmentalization while avoiding their weaknesses.
+++++Facilitates coordination of complex and interdependent activities.
-------Breaks down unity-of-command concept.

What Is Organizational Structure?

Key Design Questions and Answers for Designing the Proper Organization Structure

The Key Question The Answer Is Provided By
1. To what degree are articles ---Work specialization
subdivided into separate jobs?

2. On what basis will jobs be grouped ---Departmentalization
together?

3. To whom do individuals and groups ---Chain of command
report?

4. How many individuals can a manager ---Span of control
efficiently and effectively direct?

5. Where does decision-making ---Centralization
authority lie? and decentralization

6. To what degree will there be rules ---Formalization
and regulations to direct employees
and managers?

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Scientific management

Scientific management (also called Taylorism or the Taylor system) is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflows, with the objective of improving labor productivity. The core ideas of the theory were developed by Frederick Winslow Taylor in the 1880s and 1890s, and were first published in his monographs, Shop silly Management (1905)[1] and The Principles of Scientific Management (1911). Taylor believed that decisions based upon tradition and rules of thumb should be replaced by precise procedures developed after careful study of an individual at work. Its application is contingent on a high level of managerial control over employee work practices.

Article 311

Article 311 of the Constitution of India

Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State

  1. No person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.(It was in the news in around oct 2006 for the reason that the PM made a strong plea for corruption-free government.The Administrative Reforms Committee headed by Veerappa Moily is examining the issue of removal of this key provision in the constitution which gives immunity cover to dishonest civil servants.The Santhanam committee on prevention of corruption and the National Commission to review the working of the constitution headed by justice M. Venkatachaliah also suggested the revisiting of article 311.)

  2. No such person as aforesaid shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges:

    Provided that where it is proposed after such inquiry, to impose upon him any such penalty, such penalty may be imposed on the basis of the evidence adduced during such inquiry and it shall not be necessary to give such person any opportunity of making representation on the penalty proposed: Provided further that this clause shall not apply-
    1. where a person is dismissed or removed or reduced in rank on the ground of conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge; or
    2. where the authority empowered to dismiss or remove a person or to reduce him in rank is satisfied that for some reason, to be recorded by that authority in writing, it is not reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry; or
    3. where the President or the Governor, as the case may be, is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State it is not expedient to hold such inquiry.

  3. If, in respect of any such person as aforesaid, a question arises whether it is reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry as is referred to in clause (2), the decision thereon of the authority empowered to dismiss or remove such person or to reduce him in rank shall be final.
Clause (1) of Article 311 clearly limits the application of the provisions of the Article to members of Civil Services of the Union or of All India Services or Civil Services of the States or holders of civil posts under the Union or a State. It does not cover members of the Defense Services or those holding posts connected with the defense including civilian personnel working on posts connected with defence and paid from Defence Estimates. [It may, however, be noted that civil Government servants in defence services have been brought under the purview of the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965]. Employees of public undertaking or of independent corporate bodies are not holders of civil posts and are not covered by Article 311 except Government servants who are on deputation to such undertakings or corporate bodies.